No, the Hebrew word in Isaiah that is translated "virgin" in the Christian context, is not mistralslated. That's a common Jewish claim, and that claim goes back to the time of Jesus when the slander was floated among the unbelieving Jews that Mary's child was simply illegitimate, that she'd cheated on Joseph. That slander ended up in the Talmud too as I understand it, and was part of the reason that Luther had his conniption fit at the Jews.
However, that Hebrew word if translated "young woman" instead of "virgin" would imply that an UNMARRIED young woman had a baby and that just doesn't work in the Old Testament context. You just don't have an unmarried mother. Adultery was severelyu punished. No, the word is properly translated "virgin."
And of course the New Testament accounts of Mary's being visited by the angel Gabriel to announce her pregnancy are all lies according to this slander. God formed jesus in her womb. She was a virgin.
And Jesus had to be born of a virgin because if he'd had a human father he would not have been sinless and would ot have qualified to be our Savior.
But of course those with a vested interest in discrediting Christianity are going to go on promoting the lies.
Seeking God again
7 years ago
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